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Platonic Forms and Biblical Philosophy

 pm-final2Hebrews 9:23

VAna,gkh ou=n ta. me.n u`podei,gmata tw/n evn toi/j ouvranoi/j tou,toij kaqari,zesqai( auvta. de. ta. evpoura,nia krei,ttosin qusi,aij para. tau,tajÅ

It is necessary then that on the one hand the copies of “things in the heavens” to be cleansed, but the things of heaven themselves, (are to be cleansed) with better sacrifices

The writer of the book of Hebrews is writing about the implements of the temple and the temple itself (Hebrews 9:21). He states that these things are copies of heavenly things. What precisely does he mean by copies of heavenly things, and the things themselves? In the next verse he compounds this language when he says…

Hebrews 9:24 - For Christ did not go into a holy place made by hands, which are an antitype of the true things”

The word for antitype which many translations render copies, is pivotal for understanding the viewpoint of the writer of Hebrews.

What does it mean to have a heavenly representation, a true thing, which on earth exists as mere copies of what it actually is? Well if you were a first century Greek it would mean you were a Platonist. The way in which the writer frames his theology is necessarily dependant on the Platonic philosophy of his day.

Some people are content to ignore evidence such as this. They simply gloss over the connection between this sort of language and the dominate philosophical themes of the era in which it is written. I personally find it impossibly dissonant to do so. It appears to me overwhelmingly the case that this is Platonic language. Others acknowledge the implications of the passage, but speak of it as a borrowing of a language and a culture for a purpose. These argue that the writer of Hebrew was not a Platonist but he used Platonic language as part of a missionary strategy to convert gentiles. In both cases the assumption of the a-cultural nature of the writer is being maintained. Why is it that we must frame the writer as a-cultural rather than see him as a product of his time? Why must the inspired writers of scripture be spiritually aloof from their own culture?

I think there are two or three psychological / sociological factors from our modern culture which lead us to reread the writers of scripture as a-cultural beings. The writer of Hebrews (some would reason) could not have had a metaphysical belief in Platonism for one or all of the following reasons.

(1) Truth is transcendent not culturally contextual. If we say this text represents Platonic thought we make the Bible dependant on a specific culture which we dont share, but for scripture to be true it must be a-cultural and transcendent.

(2) Platonism is wrong (because our culture has transcended it philosophically) and therefore to say that a human author is Platonic in his thinking is to say the Bible is sophmoric and unadvanced and in error.

(3) Some people are just mired in cultural classism, which unconciously assumes that one’s own culture is representative of all cultures in matters of philosophy and perspective. Therefore they reason that “The Bible’s culture must be essentially like my culture.”

In all three cases assumptions like these fail to take into account that their viewpoint is itself a product of its own specific philosophical culture. Unreflectively they assume that one’s own culture is “the right culture” when it comes to philosophy. Our post enlightenment minds read overtop the Platonic message of Hebrews because it is unthinkable to do otherwise for the modern man. To allow the writer of Hebrews to be a barbarous Platonist is tantamount to calling God’s word worthless. We have transcended that sort of base philosophical speculation and have come into true modernity.

This assumption of one’s own culture is what is responsible for much of the fundamentalist backlash against supposed “liberalism” which seeks to understand scripture from within its own contextual world. I am one of these “liberals.” I simply think that the human author of Hebrews is a Platonist, and he is framing his theology through Platonic patterns. There is nothing odd about this at all; all cultures try to do this. The question at hand then is which culture has the “right” philosophical worldview to properly understand the Bible?

The answer is all of them, instead of none of them. The message of the Bible is neither culturally centered nor a-cultural, but trans-cultural. It crosses over worlds, kingdoms, tribes and nations and somehow unifies them.

Take for example the modern evangelical Christian world. When it argues against evolutionary theory it does so to demonstrate that Genesis 1 has a literal fulfillment; and why is this important? It is important because in our culture literal is equated with true. Interesting enough St. Augustine when speaking about creation and the same passage of Genesis 1 argues that creation must be instantaneous. And why does Augustine depart into such rank heresy? Because he was a neo-Platonist, and what was “actual” was what was heavenly and of the world of the forms; not what was actual on the earth. What a different viewpoint Augustine held! Many today try to make the story of Genesis fit within a scientific framework, because what is naturalistic and material is what is real. Augustine, however, was the exact opposite. What happened in the material world was immaterial (this word itself is a vestige of our culture) only what happened in the invisible, metaphysical world of the forms counted.

WHich is the “right” answer? Which culture has the Biblical world view? I think the answer is both of them do. Biblical worldviews are conversations, not paradigms. The transcendent Logos speaks into the cultural world of its readers and produces a worldview which is a combination of them both. This is as true of the Bible’s writers as it is of its readers. We reproduce worldviews when we read scripture and transport them into our own world. What Genesis 1 meant to the original writer is different than what it meant to Augustine and different than what it means to a modern creationist. There simply is not “transcendant worldview” which we are supposed to appropriate. Rather there is “transcendant Logos” which appropriates itself contextually into our lives.

We ought not try and sort out which one of these is the one and only true philosophical world, but accept that God’s message crosses worlds, working within them not outside of them.

Perhaps if we would stop viewing the Bible through cultural lenses to identify the correct philosophical world from which to read scripture and would instead focus on Christ, in whom the panoply of philosophical worlds have been united, then maybe we could move beyond the debates which have so bitterly divided the church. In short I am suggesting a post modern turn, but then again…it is my philosophical world.

~ by Nick Altman on November 6, 2008.

3 Responses to “Platonic Forms and Biblical Philosophy”

  1. Something to consider. For Plato, earthly objects are not “copies” of forms. They are manifestations of a forms power. For Plato, forms are the causes of things,b ut sincere their unified causal power is diversified over the infinite many of matter, their causal power is diminished and so material objects, qua object is temporary. The temple language of hebrews seems to have more to do with Mesopotamian views of an enthroned deity as a quasi father figure than Platonism.

  2. Perry,

    I would read Plato as saying that the Demiurgos is the thing which manifests a forms power in an earthy substance. I think you are correct in that the singular form is divested into many substances, which is why the substance is not the form (this is the one/many problem which Plato is dealing with). So you have indeed understood Plato’s system. I am not arguing for an idea of simple copies, what I am saying is that the langauge of copies in Hebrews is identical to that in Platonic thought; and he therefore is importing some of that philosophical world.

    “the world has been framed in the likeness of that which is apprehended by reason and mind and is unchangeable, and must therefore of necessity, if this is admitted, be a copy of something.” – Plato’s Timaeus

    The same word (’upodeygma) is used in both texts; and the language of antitype (antitupos) is picked up in many places throughout Plato’s works concerning form and substance.

    As for the mesopotamian views; I am unaware of prehellenic views in the ANE which would hold that things on earth were “antitupa” or antitypes of “ton alethenon” or true things which reside in heaven. FOr sure there were representations of heavenly things on earth, such as idols, but this were actually invested with the gods they were to be serving. The thing itself was invested with power. I am also aware that in hellenized places ANE people would assimilate this culturally philosophy and form a hybrid philosophically speaking (Philo may be the best example of this).

    I am curious, however, as to what specific things did you have in mind as being a Mesopotamian views of antitypes and true things?

    Assuming there was such a view that is prehellenistic then I suppose that might mean that the language used by the author of Hebrews is hellenistic language to help mimic Hebraic ideas. At least a person could argue for that (something akin to using Logos to repackage the ideas of Hokmah (wisdom) which some argue is what is happening in John 1:1)

    Thanks for your engagement, you make some good points.

    Pax Christi…Nick

  3. sed contra, the discussion of the craftsman is part of a “likely story” or myth that Plato constructs and so it shouldn’t be given the kind of weight I think you are placing on it. In Plato’s more directly philosophical works like the Phaedo for example he is clear that there really are things that are equal, not copies of equality. Plato’s idea is that the form is one, its energies are many and an energy is not cut off from its source. It is clear from the Phaedo and other works, or so I’d argue that he is strugglingt o find an adequate way to speak of things. So for example he speaks of the difference between the cold an coldness and while the latter is not the same as the form, it is nonetheless deserving of the name of the cold. Coldness is an energy or activity of the form of cold. the notion of a”copy” doesn’t do the Platonic conception justice.

    furthermore, lots of religious and philosophical traditions have an idea of things below being representaitonal and not just platonism. The Stoics for example had such views. So similarity isn’t a sufficient condition to conclude dependence or conceptual overlap.

    Lots of pre-hellenic traditions held that the temples on earth were representations of a heavenly existence. The Greeks had this themselves. Judaism has this language throughout the OT and non-canonical writings, not theleast of which are in the prophetic writings where visions of God enthroned. As for the gods investing the places and things of worship, isn’t this also true in he case of the OT temple? If it isn’t what’s thedeal with the holy of holies and the mercy seat? I’d also suggest thinking about how the gods of these ancient cultures came about. They acted like people because they were people. They were ancestors, usually parents at first who were later through embellishment elevated to deity status. This iswhy many primitive religions have no deities but they do have ancestor honoring.

    In sum,I don’t find anything particularly platonic about the material in hebrews. I think that idea is the product of old german scholarship that was in the grip of a view that saw the history of christian theology being polluted by greek philosophy.

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